Greek I; lesson 18

John 1:42

ἤγαγεν αὐτὸν πρὸς τὸν Ἰησοῦν. ἐμβλέψας αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν· σὺ εἶ Σίμων ὁ υἱὸς Ἰωάννου, σὺ κληθήσῃ Κηφᾶς, ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος.

ἤγαγεν

ηγαγεν is unique in that it reduplicates in the aorist tense. because of this change in stem, the verb is a second aorist.

 

ἐμβλέψας

εμβλεψας is anarthrous and here is an adverbial participle.  Since it is aorist tense, what key word should you use to translate it (BBG 28.4)?

Without analyzing its spelling, what case is Σιμων?  How does GGBB page 171 apply to this verse?

σὺ εἶ Σίμων ὁ υἱὸς Ἰωάννου,

Without analyzing its spelling, what case is Σιμων?  What function is it (principle 6)?

What is in apposition to what in this clause?

 

σὺ κληθήσῃ Κηφᾶς, ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος.

What is the dependent clause?  DMW?  Function?  What word is modified?

κληθηση changes its stem in the future passive from καλε- to κλη-. You can easily discern that it is future passive from the tense formative (BBG 24.15).

Note that Κηφᾶς here is nominative because it is a PN. Some verbs, in addition to the forms of ειμι, take PNs as their complement, not objects. We have the same thing in English. The verb “taste”, for instance, takes a PN or a PA; e.g. This tastes great.

 


John 1:43

Τῇ ἐπαύριον ἠθέλησεν ἐξελθεῖν εἰς τὴν Γαλιλαίαν καὶ εὑρίσκει Φίλιππον. καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· ἀκολούθει μοι.

Where is the complementary infinitive?

 

καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· ἀκολούθει μοι.

ακολουθει can be third singular as in Matt. 10:38, or it can be second singular imperative as here. The connecting vowel of ακολουθεω contracted with the epsilon ending for the second singular imperative ending to make ακολουθει (contraction).

ακολουθε-               stem
ακολουθεε               add the connecting vowel
ακολουθει                 contraction

 


John 1:44

ἦν δὲ ὁ Φίλιππος ἀπὸ Βηθσαϊδά, ἐκ τῆς πόλεως Ἀνδρέου καὶ Πέτρου.

ἦν δὲ ὁ Φίλιππος ἀπὸ Βηθσαϊδά

Is ην action or linking?  Is ην transitive or intransitive?  What is the subject of ην?

Note the phrase ἐκ τῆς πόλεως Ἀνδρέου καὶ Πέτρου.  What word does this phrase modify?

In case you forgot the case endings, you can parse πολεως from knowing about εκ. This preposition always takes its OP in the genitive case.

 


John 1:45

εὑρίσκει Φίλιππος τὸν Ναθαναὴλ καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ· ὃν ἔγραψεν Μωϋσῆς ἐν τῷ νόμῳ καὶ οἱ προφῆται εὑρήκαμεν, Ἰησοῦν υἱὸν τοῦ Ἰωσὴφ τὸν ἀπὸ Ναζαρέτ.

Know the contraction that takes place in εγραψεν.

ὃν ἔγραψεν Μωϋσῆς ἐν τῷ νόμῳ καὶ οἱ προφῆται is the DO of ευρηκαμεν.  Why is the DMW in the accusative case?

Now look at Ιησουν, υιον, and τον. All are in apposition to ον (principle 38). The article τον is an orphan article. In this case, translate, “the One from Nazareth.”

 

 

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